A young Pomeranian presents four weeks after being stepped on. It has been managed in a splint bandage.
1) This fracture is considered:
b) Hypertrophic nonunion
2) Which factors can contribute to this?
a) Inadequate stabilization
b) Poor vascular supply
c) Lack of apposition of bone fragments
d) All of the above
3) What should be the treatment of choice?
a) External coaptation
b) Revision surgery
Check your answers on page 2.
Pages: 1 2